ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS AND TRANSACTIONS ACT 25 OF 2002
(Last updated: 05 October 2017)
To provide for the facilitation and regulation of electronic communications and transactions; to provide for the development of a national e-strategy for the Republic; to promote universal access to electronic communications and transactions and the use of electronic transactions by SMMEs; to provide for human resource development in electronic transactions; to prevent abuse of information systems; to encourage the use of e-government services; and to provide for matters connected therewith.
ARRANGEMENT OF SECTIONS
INTERPRETATION, OBJECTS AND APPLICATION
- Objects of Act
- Sphere of application
MAXIMISING BENEFITS AND POLICY FRAMEWORK
- National e-strategy
- Universal access
- Previously disadvantaged persons and communities
- Development of human resources
Electronic transactions policy
- Electronic transactions policy
FACILITATING ELECTRONIC TRANSACTIONS
Legal requirements for data messages
- Legal recognition of data messages
- Admissibility and evidential weight of data messages
- Production of document or information
- Notarisation, acknowledgement and certification
- Other requirements
- Automated transactions
Communication of data messages
- Variation by agreement between parties
- Formation and validity of agreements
- Time and place of communications, dispatch and receipt
- Expression of intent or other statement
- Attribution of data messages to originator
- Acknowledgement of receipt of data message
- Acceptance of electronic filing and issuing of documents
- Requirements may be specified
- Register of cryptography providers
- Registration with Department
- Restrictions on disclosure of information
- Application of Chapter and offences
AUTHENTICATION SERVICE PROVIDERS
- Appointment of Accreditation Authority and other officers
- Accreditation to be voluntary
- Powers and duties of Accreditation Authority
- Accreditation of authentication products and services
- Criteria for accreditation
- Revocation or termination of accreditation
- Accreditation of foreign products and services
- Accreditation regulations
- Scope of application
- Information to be provided
- Cooling-off period
- Unsolicited goods, services or communications
- Applicability of foreign law
- Complaints to Consumer Affairs Committee
PROTECTION OF PERSONAL INFORMATION
- Scope of protection of personal information
- Principles for electronically collecting personal information
PROTECTION OF CRITICAL DATABASES
- Scope of critical database protection
- Identification of critical data and critical databases
- 54 Registration of critical databases
- Management of critical databases
- Restrictions on disclosure of information
- Right of inspection
- Non-compliance with Chapter
DOMAIN NAME AUTHORITY AND ADMINISTRATION
Establishment and incorporation of .za domain name authority
- Establishment of Authority
- Incorporation of Authority
- Authority's memorandum and articles of association
Governance and staffing of Authority
- Board of directors of Authority
- Staff of Authority
Functions of Authority
- Licensing of registrars and registries
- Functions of Authority
Finances and reporting
- Finances of Authority
- Regulations regarding Authority
Alternative dispute resolution
- Alternative dispute resolution
LIMITATION OF LIABILITY OF SERVICE PROVIDERS
- Recognition of representative body
- Conditions for eligibility
- Mere conduit
- Information location tools
- Take-down notification
- No general obligation to monitor
- Appointment of cyber inspectors
- Powers of cyber inspectors
- Power to inspect, search and seize
- Obtaining warrant
- Preservation of confidentiality
- 85 Definition
86 Unauthorised access to, interception of or interference with data
87 Computer-related extortion, fraud and forgery
88 Attempt, and aiding and abetting
- Jurisdiction of courts
- Saving of common law
- Repeal of Act 57 of 1983
- Limitation of liability
- Short title and commencement
INTERPRETATION, OBJECTS AND APPLICATION (ss 1-4)
In this Act, unless the context indicates otherwise-
'addressee', in respect of a data message, means a person who is intended by the originator to receive the data message, but not a person acting as an intermediary in respect of that data message;
'advanced electronic signature' means an electronic signature which results from a process which has been accredited by the Authority as provided for in section 37;
'authentication products or services' means products or services designed to identify the holder of an electronic signature to other persons;
'authentication service provider' means a person whose authentication products or services have been accredited by the Accreditation Authority under section 37 or recognised under section 40; 'Authority' means the .za Domain Name Authority;
'automated transaction' means an electronic transaction conducted or performed, in whole or in part, by means of data messages in which the conduct or data messages of one or both parties are not reviewed by a natural person in the ordinary course of such natural person's business or employment;
'browser' means a computer program which allows a person to read hyperlinked data messages;
'cache' means high speed memory that stores data for relatively short periods of time, under computer control, in order to speed up data transmission or processing;
'ccTLD' means country code domain at the top level of the Internet's domain name system assigned according to the two-letter codes in the International Standard ISO 3166-1 (Codes for Representation of Names of Countries and their Subdivision);
'certification service provider' means a person providing an authentication product or service in the form of a digital certificate attached to, incorporated in or logically associated with a data message;
'consumer' means any natural person who enters or intends entering into an electronic transaction with a supplier as the end user of the goods or services offered by that supplier;
'Consumer Affairs Committee' means the Consumer Affairs Committee established by section 2 of the Consumer Affairs (Unfair Business Practices) Act, 1988 (Act 71 of 1988);
'critical data' means data that is declared by the Minister in terms of section 53 to be of importance to the protection of the national security of the Republic or the economic and social well-being of its citizens;
'critical database' means a collection of critical data in electronic form from where it may be accessed, reproduced or extracted; 'critical database administrator' means the person responsible for the management and control of a critical database;
'cryptography product' means any product that makes use of cryptographic techniques and is used by a sender or recipient of data messages for the purposes of ensuring-
(a) that such data can be accessed only by relevant persons;
(b) the authenticity of the data;
(c) the integrity of the data; or
(d) that the source of the data can be correctly ascertained;
'cryptography provider' means any person who provides or who proposes to provide cryptography services or products in the Republic;
'cryptography service' means any service which is provided to a sender or a recipient of a data message or to anyone storing a data message, and which is designed to facilitate the use of cryptographic techniques for the purpose of ensuring-
(a) that such data or data message can be accessed or can be put into an intelligible form only by certain persons;
(b) that the authenticity or integrity of such data or data message is capable of being ascertained;
(c) the integrity of the data or data message; or
(d) that the source of the data or data message can be correctly ascertained;
'cyber inspector' means an inspector referred to in Chapter XII; 'data' means electronic representations of information in any form;
'data controller' means any person who electronically requests, collects, collates, processes or stores personal information from or in respect of a data subject;
'data message' means data generated, sent, received or stored by electronic means and includes-
(a) voice, where the voice is used in an automated transaction; and
(b) a stored record; 'data subject' means any natural person from or in respect of whom personal information has been requested, collected, collated, processed or stored, after the commencement of this Act; 'Department' means the Department of Communications;
'Director-General' means the Director-General of the Department; 'domain name' means an alphanumeric designation that is registered or assigned in respect of an electronic address or other resource on the Internet;
'domain name system' means a system to translate domain names into IP addresses or other information; 'e-government services' means any public service provided by electronic means by any public body in the Republic;
'electronic agent' means a computer program or an electronic or other automated means used independently to initiate an action or respond to data messages or performances in whole or in part, in an automated transaction;
'electronic communication' means a communication by means of data messages;
'electronic signature' means data attached to, incorporated in, or logically associated with other data and which is intended by the user to serve as a signature;
'e-mail' means electronic mail, a data message used or intended to be used as a mail message between the originator and addressee in an electronic communication;
'home page' means the primary entry point web page of a web site;
'hyperlink' means a reference or link from some point in one data message directing a browser or other technology or functionality to another data message or point therein or to another place in the same data message;
'ICANN' means the Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers, a California non-profit public benefit corporation established in terms of the laws of the state of California in the United States of America;
'information system' means a system for generating, sending, receiving, storing, displaying or otherwise processing data messages and includes the Internet;
'information system services' includes the provision of connections, the operation of facilities for information systems, the provision of access to information systems, the transmission or routing of data messages between or among points specified by a user and the processing and storage of data, at the individual request of the recipient of the service;
'intermediary' means a person who, on behalf of another person, whether as agent or not, sends, receives or stores a particular data message or provides other services with respect to that data message;
'Internet' means the interconnected system of networks that connects computers around the world using the TCP/IP and includes future versions thereof;
'IP address' means the number identifying the point of connection of a computer or other device to the Internet;
'Minister' means the Minister of Communications;
'originator' means a person by whom, or on whose behalf, a data message purports to have been sent or generated prior to storage, if any, but does not include a person acting as an intermediary with respect to that data message;
'person' includes a public body;
'personal information' means information about an identifiable individual, including, but not limited to-
(a) information relating to the race, gender, sex, pregnancy, marital status, national, ethnic or social origin, colour, sexual orientation, age, physical or mental health, well-being, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth of the individual;
(b) information relating to the education or the medical, criminal or employment history of the individual or information relating to financial transactions in which the individual has been involved;
(c) any identifying number, symbol, or other particular assigned to the individual;
(d) the address, fingerprints or blood type of the individual;
(e) the personal opinions, views or preferences of the individual, except where they are about another individual or about a proposal for a grant, an award or a prize to be made to another individual;
(f) correspondence sent by the individual that is implicitly or explicitly of a private or confidential nature or further correspondence that would reveal the contents of the original correspondence;
(g) the views or opinions of another individual about the individual;
(h) the views or opinions of another individual about a proposal for a grant, an award or a prize to be made to the individual, but excluding the name of the other individual where it appears with the views or opinions of the other individual; and
(i) the name of the individual where it appears with other personal information relating to the individual or where the disclosure of the name itself would reveal information about the individual, but excludes information about an individual who has been dead for more than 20 years;
'prescribe' means prescribe by regulation under this Act;
'private body' means-
(a) a natural person who carries or has carried on any trade, business or profession, but only in such capacity;
(b) a partnership which carries or has carried on any trade, business or profession; or
(c) any former or existing juristic person,
but not a public body;
'public body' means-
(a) any department of state or administration in the national or provincial sphere of government or any
municipality in the local sphere of government; or
(b) any other functionary or institution when-
(i) exercising a power or performing a duty in terms of the Constitution or a provincial constitution;
(ii) exercising a power or performing a function in terms of any legislation;
'registrant' means an applicant for or holder of a domain name;
'registrar' means an entity which is licensed by the Authority to update a repository;
'registry' means an entity licensed by the Authority to manage and administer a specific subdomain;
'repository' means the primary register of the information maintained by a registry;
'second level domain' means the subdomain immediately following the ccTLD;
'SMMEs' means Small, Medium and Micro Enterprises contemplated in the Schedules to the Small Business
Development Act, 1996 (Act 102 of 1996);
'subdomain' means any subdivision of the .za domain name space which begins at the second level domain;
'TCP/IP' means the Transmission Control Protocol Internet Protocol used by an information system to connect to the Internet;
'TLD' means a top level domain of the domain name system;
'third party', in relation to a service provider, means a subscriber to the service provider's services or any other user of the service provider's services or a user of information systems;
'transaction' means a transaction of either a commercial or non-commercial nature, and includes the provision of information and e-government services;
'universal access' means access by all citizens of the Republic to Internet connectivity and electronic transactions;
'WAP' means Wireless Application Protocol, an open international standard developed by the Wireless Application Protocol Forum Limited, a company incorporated in terms of the laws of the United Kingdom, for applications that use wireless communication and includes Internet access from a mobile phone;
'web page' means a data message on the World Wide Web;
'web site' means any location on the Internet containing a home page or web page;
'World Wide Web' means an information browsing framework that allows a user to locate and access information stored on a remote computer and to follow references from one computer to related information on another computer; and
'.za domain name space' means the .za ccTLD assigned to the Republic according to the two-letter codes in the International Standard ISO 3166-1.
2 Objects of Act
- The objects of this Act are to enable and facilitate electronic communications and transactions in the public interest, and for that purpose to-
(a) recognise the importance of the information economy for the economic and social prosperity of the Republic;
(b) promote universal access primarily in underserviced areas;
(c) promote the understanding and, acceptance of and growth in the number of electronic transactions in the Republic;
(d) remove and prevent barriers to electronic communications and transactions in the Republic;
(e) promote legal certainty and confidence in respect of electronic communications and transactions;
(f) promote technology neutrality in the application of legislation to electronic communications and transactions;
(g) promo te e-government services and electronic communications and transactions with public and private bodies, institutions and citizens;
(h) ensure that electronic transactions in the Republic conform to the highest international standards;
(i) encourage investment and innovation in respect of electronic transactions in the Republic;
(j) develop a safe, secure and effective environment for the consumer, business and the Government to conduct and use electronic transactions;
(k) promote the development of electronic transactions services which are responsive to the needs of users and consumers;
(l) ensure that, in relation to the provision of electronic transactions services, the special needs of particular communities and, areas and the disabled are duly taken into account;
(m) ensure compliance with accepted International technical standards in the provision and development of electronic communications and transactions;
(n) promote the stability of electronic transactions in the Republic;
(o) promote the development of human resources in the electronic transactions environment;
(p) promote SMMEs within the electronic transactions environment;
(q) ensure efficient use and management of the .za domain name space; and
(r) ensure that the national interest of the Republic is not compromised through the use of electronic communications.
This Act must not be interpreted so as to exclude any statutory law or the common law from being applied to, recognising or accommodating electronic transactions, data messages or any other matter provided for in this Act.
4 Sphere of application
- Subject to any contrary provision in this section, this Act applies in respect of any electronic transaction or data message.
- This Act must not be construed as -
(a) requiring any person to generate, communicate, produce, process, send, receive, record, retain, store or
display any information, document or signature by or in electronic form; or
(b) prohibiting a person from establishing requirements in respect of the manner in which that person will accept data messages.
- The sections of this Act mentioned in Column B of Schedule 1 do not apply to the laws mentioned in Column A of that Schedule.
- This Act must not be construed as giving validity to any transaction mentioned in Schedule 2.
- This Act does not limit the operation of any law that expressly authorises, prohibits or regulates the use of data messages, including any requirement by or under a law for information to be posted or displayed in a specified manner, or for any information or document to be transmitted by a specified method.
MAXIMISING BENEFITS AND POLICY FRAMEWORK (ss 5-10)
National e-strategy (ss 5-9)
5 National e-strategy
- The Minister must, within 24 months after the promulgation of this Act, develop a three-year national estrategy for the Republic, which must be submitted to the Cabinet for approval.
- The Cabinet must, on acceptance of the national e-strategy, declare the implementation of the national estrategy as a national priority.
- The Minister, in developing the national e-strategy as envisaged in subsection (1)-
(a) must determine all matters involving e-government services in consultation with the Minister for the Public Service and Administration;
(b) must determine the roles of each person, entity or sector in the implementation of the national e-strategy;
(c) must act as the responsible Minister for co-ordinating and monitoring the implementation of the national e-strategy;
(d) may make such investigations as he or she may consider necessary;
(e) may conduct research into and keep abreast of developments relevant to electronic communications and transactions in the Republic and internationally;
(f) must continually survey and evaluate the extent to which the objectives of the national e-strategy have been achieved;
(g) may liaise, consult and cooperate with public bodies, the private sector or any other person; and
(h) may, in consultation with the Minister of Finance, appoint experts and other consultants on such conditions as the Minister may determine.
- (a) The Minister must, in consultation with other members of the Cabinet, determine the subject matters to be addressed in the national e-strategy and the principles that must govern the implementation thereof.
(b) Prior to prescribing any subject matter and principles provided for in paragraph (a), the Minister must invite comments from all interested parties by notice in the Gazette and consider any comments received.
(c) The national e-strategy must, amongst others, set out-
(i) the electronic transactions strategy of the Republic, distinguishing between regional, national,
continental and international strategies;
(ii) programmes and means to achieve universal access, human resource development and
development of SMMEs as provided for in this Part;
(iii) programmes and means to promote the overall readiness of the Republic in respect of electronic
(iv) ways to promote the Republic as a preferred provider and user of electronic transactions in the
(v) existing government initiatives directly or indirectly relevant to or impacting on the national estrategy
and, if applicable, how such initiatives are to be utilised in attaining the objectives of the
(vi) the role expected to be performed by the private sector in the implementation of the national estrategy
and how government can solicit the participation of the private sector to perform such
(vii) the defined objectives, including time frames within which the objectives are to be achieved; and
(viii) the resources required to achieve the objectives provided for in the national e-strategy.
- Upon approval by the Cabinet, the Minister must publish the national e-strategy in the Gazette.
- For purposes of achieving the objectives of the national e-strategy, the Minister may, in consultation with the
Minister of Finance-
(a) procure funding from sources other than the State;
(b) allocate funds for implementation of the national e-strategy to such institutions and persons as are
responsible for delivery in terms of the national e-strategy and supervise the execution of their mandate; and
(c) take any steps necessary to enable all relevant parties to carry out their respective obligations.
- The Minister must annually report to the Cabinet on progress made and objectives achieved or outstanding and may include any other matter the Minister deems relevant.
- The Minister must annually review the national e-strategy and where necessary make amendments thereto in consultation with all relevant members of the Cabinet.
- No amendment or adaptation of the national e-strategy is effective unless approved by the Cabinet.
- The Minister must publish any material revision of the national e-strategy in the Gazette.
- The Minister must table an annual report in Parliament regarding the progress made in the implementation of the national e-strategy.
6 Universal access
In respect of universal access, the national e-strategy must outline strategies and programmes to-
(a) provide Internet connectivity to disadvantaged communities;
(b) encourage the private sector to initiate schemes to provide universal access;
(c) foster the adoption and use of new technologies for attaining universal access; and
(d) stimulate public awareness, understanding and acceptance of the benefits of Internet connectivity and electronic transacting.
7 Previously disadvantaged persons and communities
The Minister, in developing the national e-strategy, must provide for ways of maximising the benefits of electronic transactions to historically disadvantaged persons and communities, including, but not limited to-
(a) making facilities and infrastructure available or accessible to such persons and communities to enable the marketing and sale of their goods or services by way of electronic transactions;
(b) providing or securing support services for such facilities and infrastructure to assist with the efficient execution of electronic transactions; and
(c) rendering assistance and advice to such persons and communities on ways to adopt and utilise electronic transactions efficiently.
8 Development of human resources
- The Minister, in developing the national e-strategy, must provide for ways of promoting development of human resources set out in this section within the context of the government's integrated human resource development strategies, having regard to structures and programmes that have been established under existing laws.
- The Minister must consult with the Ministers of Labour and Education on existing facilities, programmes and structures for education, training and human resource development in the information technology sector relevant to the objects of this Act.
- Subject to subsections (1) and (2), the Minister must promote skills development in the areas of-
(a) information technology products and services in support of electronic transactions;
(b) business strategies for SMMEs and other businesses to utilise electronic transactions;
(c) sectoral, regional, national, continental and international policy formulation for electronic transactions;
(d) project management on public and private sector implementation of electronic transactions;
(e) the management of the .za domain name space;
(f) the management of the IP address system for the African continent in consultation with other African
(g) convergence between communication technologies affecting electronic transactions;
(h) technology and business standards for electronic transactions;
(i) education on the nature, scope, impact, operation, use and benefits of electronic transactions; and
(j) any other matter relevant to electronic transactions.
The Minister must, in consultation with the Minister of Trade and Industry, evaluate the adequacy of any existing processes, programmes and infrastructure providing for the utilisation by SMMEs of electronic transactions and, pursuant to such evaluation, may-
(a) establish or facilitate the establishment of electronic communication centres for SMMEs;
(b) facilitate the development of web sites or web site portals that will enable SMMEs to transact electronically and obtain information about markets, products and technical assistance; and
(c) facilitate the provision of such professional and expert assistance and advice to SMMEs on ways to utilise
electronic transacting efficiently for their development.
Electronic transactions policy (s 10)
10 Electronic transactions policy
- The Minister must, subject to this Act, formulate electronic transactions policy.
- In formulating the policy contemplated in subsection (1), the Minister must-
(a) act in consultation with members of the Cabinet directly affected by such policy formulation or the consequences thereof;
(b) have due regard to-
(i) the objects of this Act;
(ii) the nature, scope and impact of electronic transactions;
(iii) international best practice and conformity with the law and guidelines of other jurisdictions and international bodies; and
(iv) existing laws and their administration in the Republic.
- The Minister must publish policy guidelines in the Gazette on issues relevant to electronic transactions in the Republic.
- In implementing this Chapter, the Minister must encourage the development of innovative information systems and the growth of related industry.
FACILITATING ELECTRONIC TRANSACTIONS (ss 11-26)
Legal requirements for data messages (ss 11-20)
11 Legal recognition of data messages
- Information is not without legal force and effect merely on the grounds that it is wholly or partly in the form of a data message.
- Information is not without legal force and effect merely on the grounds that it is not contained in the data message purporting to give rise to such legal force and effect, but is merely referred to in such data message.
- Information incorporated into an agreement and that is not in the public domain is regarded as having been incorporated into a data message if such information is -
(a) referred to in a way in which a reasonable person would have noticed the reference thereto and incorporation thereof; and
(b) accessible in a form in which it may be read, stored and retrieved by the other party, whether electronically or as a computer printout as long as such information is reasonably capable of being reduced to electronic form by the party incorporating it.
A requirement in law that a document or information must be in writing is met if the document or information is -
(a) in the form of a data message; and
(b) accessible in a manner usable for subsequent reference.
- Where the signature of a person is required by law and such law does not specify the type of signature, that requirement in relation to a data message is met only if an advanced electronic signature is used.
- Subject to subsection (1), an electronic signature is not without legal force and effect merely on the grounds
that it is in electronic form.
- Where an electronic signature is required by the parties to an electronic transaction and the parties have not agreed on the type of electronic signature to be used, that requirement is met in relation to a data message if-
(a) a method is used to identify the person and to indicate the person's approval of the information communicated; and
(b) having regard to all the relevant circumstances at the time the method was used, the method was as reliable as was appropriate for the purposes for which the information was communicated.
- Where an advanced electronic signature has been used, such signature is regarded as being a valid electronic
signature and to have been applied properly, unless the contrary is proved.
- Where an electronic signature is not required by the parties to an electronic transaction, an expression of intent or other statement is not without legal force and effect merely on the grounds that-
(a) it is in the form of a data message; or
(b) it is not evidenced by an electronic signature but is evidenced by other means from which such person's intent or other statement can be inferred.
- Where a law requires information to be presented or retained in its original form, that requirement is met by a data message if-
(a) the integrity of the information from the time when it was first generated in its final form as a data message or otherwise has passed assessment in terms of subsection (2); and
(b) that information is capable of being displayed or produced to the person to whom it is to be presented.
- For the purposes of subsection 1 (a), the integrity must be assessed10
(a) by considering whether the information has remained complete and unaltered, except for the addition of any endorsement and any change which arises in the normal course of communication, storage and display;
(b) in the light of the purpose for which the information was generated; and
(c) having regard to all other relevant circumstances.
15 Admissibility and evidential weight of data messages
- In any legal proceedings, the rules of evidence must not be applied so as to deny the admissibility of a data message, in evidence-
(a) on the mere grounds that it is constituted by a data message; or
(b) if it is the best evidence that the person adducing it could reasonably be expected to obtain, on the grounds that it is not in its original form.
- Information in the form of a data message must be given due evidential weight.
- In assessing the evidential weight of a data message, regard must be had to-
(a) the reliability of the manner in which the data message was generated, stored or communicated;
(b) the reliability of the manner in which the integrity of the data message was maintained;
(c) the manner in which its originator was identified; and
(d) any other relevant factor.
- A data message made by a person in the ordinary course of business, or a copy or printout of or an extract from such data message certified to be correct by an officer in the service of such person, is on its mere production in any civil, criminal, administrative or disciplinary proceedings under any law, the rules of a self regulatory organisation or any other law or the common law, admissible in evidence against any person and rebuttable proof of the facts contained in such record, copy, printout or extract.
- Where a law requires information to be retained, that requirement is met by retaining such information in the form of a data message, if-
(a) the information contained in the data message is accessible so as to be usable for subsequent reference;
(b) the data message is in the format in which it was generated, sent or received, or in a format which can be demonstrated to represent accurately the information generated, sent or received; and
(c) the origin and destination of that data message and the date and time it was sent or received can be determined.
- The obligation to retain information as contemplated in subsection (1) does not extend to any information the sole purpose of which is to enable the message to be sent or received.
17 Production of document or information
- Subject to section 28, where a law requires a person to produce a document or information, that requirement is met if the person produces, by means of a data message, an electronic form of that document or information, and if-
(a) considering all the relevant circumstances at the time that the data message was sent, the method of generating the electronic form of that document provided a reliable means of assuring the maintenance of the integrity of the information contained in that document; and
(b) at the time the data message was sent, it was reasonable to expect that the information contained therein would be readily accessible so as to be usable for subsequent reference.
- For the purposes of subsection (1), the integrity of the information contained in a document is maintained if the information has remained complete and unaltered, except for-
(a) the addition of any endorsement; or
(b) any immaterial change, which arises in the normal course of communication, storage or display.
18 Notarisation, acknowledgement and certification
- Where a law requires a signature, statement or document to be notarised, acknowledged, verified or made under oath, that requirement is met if the advanced electronic signature of the person authorised to perform those acts is attached to, incorporated in or logically associated with the electronic signature or data message.
- Where a law requires or permits a person to provide a certified copy of a document and the document exists in electronic form, that requirement is met if the person provides a print-out certified to be a true reproduction of the document or information.
- Where a law requires or permits a person to provide a certified copy of a document and the document exists in paper or other physical form, that requirement is met if an electronic copy of the document is certified to be a true copy thereof and the certification is confirmed by the use of an advanced electronic signature.
19 Other requirements
- A requirement in a law for multiple copies of a document to be submitted to a single addressee at the same
time, is satisfied by the submission of a single data message that is capable of being reproduced by that addressee.
- An expression in a law, whether used as a noun or verb, including the terms 'document', 'record', 'file', 'submit','lodge', 'deliver', 'issue', 'publish', 'write in', 'print' or words or expressions of similar effect, must be interpreted so as to include or permit such form, format or action in relation to a data message unless otherwise provided for in this Act.
- Where a seal is required by law to be affixed to a document and such law does not prescribe the method or form by which such document may be sealed by electronic means, that requirement is met if the document indicates that it is required to be under seal and it includes the advanced electronic signature of the person by whom it is required to be sealed.
- Where any law requires or permits a person to send a document or information by registered or certified post or similar service, that requirement is met if an electronic copy of the document or information is sent to the South African Post Office Limited, is registered by the said Post Office and sent by that Post Office to the electronic address provided by the sender.
20 Automated transactions
In an automated transaction-
(a) an agreement may be formed where an electronic agent performs an action required by law for agreement formation;
(b) an agreement may be formed where all parties to a transaction or either one of them uses an electronic agent;
(c) a party using an electronic agent to form an agreement is, subject to paragraph (d), presumed to be bound by the terms of that agreement irrespective of whether that person reviewed the actions of the electronic agent or the terms of the agreement;
(d) A party interacting with an electronic agent to form an agreement is not bound by the terms of the agreement unless those terms were capable of being reviewed by a natural person representing that party prior to agreement formation.
(e) no agreement is formed where a natural person interacts directly with the electronic agent of another person and has made a material error during the creation of a data message and-
(i) the electronic agent did not provide that person with an opportunity to prevent or correct the error;
(ii) that person notifies the other person of the error as soon as practicable after that person has learned of it;
(iii) that person takes reasonable steps, including steps that conform to the other person's instructions to return any performance received, or, if instructed to do so, to destroy that performance; and
(iv) that person has not used or received any material benefit or value from any performance received from the other person.
Communication of data messages (ss 21-26)
21 Variation by agreement between parties
This Part only applies if the parties involved in generating, sending, receiving, storing or otherwise processing data messages have not reached agreement on the issues provided for therein.
22 Formation and validity of agreements
- An agreement is not without legal force and effect merely because it was concluded partly or in whole by means of data messages.
- An agreement concluded between parties by means of data messages is concluded at the time when and place where the acceptance of the offer was received by the offeror.
23 Time and place of communications, dispatch and receipt
A data message-
(a) used in the conclusion or performance of an agreement must be regarded as having been sent by the originator when it enters an information system outside the control of the originator or, if the originator and addressee are in the same information system, when it is capable of being retrieved by the addressee;
(b) must be regarded as having been received by the addressee when the complete data message enters an information system designated or used for that purpose by the addressee and is capable of being retrieved and processed by the addressee; and
(c) must be regarded as having been sent from the originator's usual place of business or residence and as having been received at the addressee's usual place of business or residence.
24 Expression of intent or other statement
As between the originator and the addressee of a data message an expression of intent or other statement is not without legal force and effect merely on the grounds that-
(a) it is in the form of a data message; or
(b) it is not evidenced by an electronic signature but by other means from which such person's intent or other statement can be inferred.
25 Attribution of data messages to originator
A data message is that of the originator if it was sent by-
(a) the originator personally;
(b) a person who had authority to act on behalf of the originator in respect of that data message; or
(c) an information system programmed by or on behalf of the originator to operate automatically unless it is proved that the information system did not properly execute such programming.
26 Acknowledgement of receipt of data message
- An acknowledgement of receipt of a data message is not necessary to give legal effect to that message.
- An acknowledgement of receipt may be given by-
(a) any communication by the addressee, whether automated or otherwise; or
(b) any conduct of the addressee, sufficient to indicate to the originator that the data message has been received.
E-GOVERNMENT SERVICES (ss 27-28)
27 Acceptance of electronic filing and issuing of documents
Any public body that, pursuant to any law-
(a) accepts the filing of documents, or requires that documents be created or retained;
(b) issues any permit, licence or approval; or
(c) provides for a manner of payment, may, notwithstanding anything to the contrary in such law-
(i) accept the filing of such documents, or the creation or retention of such documents in the form of data
(ii) issue such permit, licence or approval in the form of a data message; or
(iii) make or receive payment in electronic form or by electronic means.
28 Requirements may be specified
- In any case where a public body performs any of the functions referred to in section 27, such body may specifyby notice in the Gazette-
(a) the manner and format in which the data messages must be filed, created, retained or issued;
(b) in cases where the data message has to be signed, the type of electronic signature required;
(c) the manner and format in which such electronic signature must be attached to, incorporated in orotherwise associated with the data message;
(d) the identity of or criteria that must be met by any authentication service provider used by the person filing the data message or that such authentication service provider must be a preferred authentication service provider;
(e) the appropriate control processes and procedures to ensure adequate integrity, security and confidentialityof data messages or payments; and
(f) any other requirements for data messages or payments.
- For the purposes of subsection (1) (d) the South African Post Office Limited is a preferred authentication service provider and the Minister may designate any other authentication service provider as a preferred authentication service provider based on such authentication service provider's obligations in respect of the provision of universal access.
CRYPTOGRAPHY PROVIDERS (ss 29-32)
29 Register of cryptography providers
- The Director-General must establish and maintain a register of cryptography providers.
- The Director-General must record the following particulars in respect of a cryptography provider in that register:
(a) The name and address of the cryptography provider;
(b) a description of the type of cryptography service or cryptography product being provided; and
(c) such other particulars as may be prescribed to identify and locate the cryptography provider or its products or services adequately.
- A cryptography provider is not required to disclose confidential information or trade secrets in respect of its cryptography products or services.
30 Registration with Department
- No person may provide cryptography services or cryptography products in the Republic until the particulars referred to in section 29 in respect of that person have been recorded in the register contemplated in section 29.
- A cryptography provider must in the prescribed manner furnish the Director-General with the information required and pay the prescribed administrative fee.
- A cryptography service or cryptography product is regarded as being provided in the Republic if it is provided-
(a) from premises in the Republic;
(b) to a person who is present in the Republic when that person makes use of the service or product; or
(c) to a person who uses the service or product for the purposes of a business carried on in the Republic or from premis es in the Republic.
31 Restrictions on disclosure of information
- Information contained in the register provided for in section 29 must not be disclosed to any person other than to employees of the Department who are responsible for the keeping of the register.
- Subsection (1) does not apply in respect of information which is disclosed-
(a) to a relevant authority which investigates a criminal offence or for the purposes of any criminal proceedings;
(b) to government agencies responsible for safety and security in the Republic, pursuant to an official request;
(c) to a cyber inspector;
(d) pursuant to section 11 or 30 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act, (Act 2 of 2000); or
(e) for the purposes of any civil proceedings which relate to the provision of cryptography services or cryptography products and to which a cryptography provider is a party.
32 Application of Chapter and offences
- The provisions of this Chapter do not apply to the National Intelligence Agency established in terms of section 3 of the Intelligence Services Act, 1994 (Act 38 of 1994).
- A person who contravenes or fails to comply with a provision of this Chapter is guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years.
AUTHENTICATION SERVICE PROVIDERS (ss 33-40)
Accreditation Authority (ss 33-36)
In this Chapter, unless the context indicates otherwise-
'accreditation' means recognition of an authentication product or service by the Accreditation Authority.
34 Appointment of Accreditation Authority and other officers
- For the purposes of this Chapter the Director-General must act as the Accreditation Authority.
- The Accreditation Authority, after consultation with the Minister, may appoint employees of the Department as Deputy Accreditation Authorities and officers.
35 Accreditation to be voluntary
Subject to section 30, a person may, without the prior authority of any other person, sell or provide authentication products or services in the Republic.
36 Powers and duties of Accreditation Authority
- The Accreditation Authority may-
(a) monitor the conduct, systems and operations of an authentication service provider to ensure its compliance with section 38 and the other obligations of authentication service providers in terms of thisAct;
(b) temporarily suspend or revoke the accreditation of an authentication product or service; and
(c) appoint an independent auditing firm to conduct periodic audits of the authentication service provider to ensure its compliance with section 38 and the other obligations of authentication service providers in terms of this Act.
- The Accreditation Authority must maintain a publicly accessible database in respect of-
(a) authentication products or services accredited in terms of section 37;
(b) authentication products and services recognised in terms of section 40;
(c) revoked accreditations or recognitions; and
(d) such other information as may be prescribed.
Accreditation (ss 37-41)
37 Accreditation of authentication products and services
- The Accreditation Authority may accredit authentication products and services in support of advanced electronic signatures.
- An application for accreditation must-
(a) be made to the Accreditation Authority in the prescribed manner supported by the prescribed information;and
(b) be accompanied by a non-refundable prescribed fee.
- A person falsely holding out its products or services to be accredited by the Accreditation Authority is guilty of an offence.
38 Criteria for accreditation
- The Accreditation Authority may not accredit authentication products or services unless the Accreditation Authority is satisfied that an electronic signature to which such authentication products or services relate-
(a) is uniquely linked to the user;
(b) is capable of identifying that user;
(c) is created using means that can be maintained under the sole control of that user; and
(d) will be linked to the data or data message to which it relates in such a manner that any subsequent change of the data or data message is detectable;
(e) is based on the face-to-face identification of the user.
- For purposes of subsection (1), the Accreditation Authority must have regard to the following factors in respect of an authentication service provider prior to accrediting authentication products or services:
(a) Its financial and human resources, including its assets;
(b) the quality of its hardware and software systems;
(c) its procedures for processing of products or services;
(d) the availability of information to third parties relying on the authentication product or service;
(e) the regularity and extent of audits by an independent body;
(f) the factors referred to in subsection (4) where the products and services are rendered by a certification service provider; and
(g) any other relevant factor which may be prescribed.
- For the purposes of subsections (2) (b) and (c), the hardware and software systems and procedures must at least-
(a) be reasonably secure from intrusion and misuse;
(b) provide a reasonable level of availability, reliability and correct operation;
(c) be reasonably suited to performing their intended functions; and
(d) adhere to generally accepted security procedures.
- For the purposes of subsection (1), where the products or services are provided by a certification service provider, the Accreditation Authority may stipulate, prior to accrediting authentication products or services-
(a) the technical and other requirements which certificates must meet;
(b) the requirements for issuing certificates;
(c) the requirements for certification practice statements;
(d) the responsibilities of the certification service provider;
(e) the liability of the certification service provider;
(f) the records to be kept and the manner in which and length of time for which they must be kept;
(g) requirements as to adequate certificate suspension and revocation procedures; and
(h) requirements as to adequate notification procedures relating to certificate suspension and revocation.
- The Accreditation Authority may impose any conditions or restrictions necessary when accrediting an authentication product or service.
39 Revocation or termination of accreditation
- The Accreditation Authority may suspend or revoke an accreditation if it is satisfied that the authentication service provider has failed or ceases to meet any of the requirements, conditions or restrictions subject to which accreditation was granted under section 38 or recognition was given in terms of section 40.
- Subject to the provisions of subsection (3), the Accreditation Authority may not suspend or revoke the accreditation or recognition contemplated in subsection (1) unless it has-
(a) notified the authentication service provider in writing of its intention to do so;
(b) given a description of the alleged breach of any of the requirements, conditions or restrictions subject to which accreditation was granted under section 38 or recognition was given in terms of section 40; and
(c) afforded the authentication service provider the opportunity to-
(i) respond to the allegations in writing; and
(ii) remedy the alleged breach within a reasonable time.
- The Accreditation Authority may suspend accreditation granted under section 38 or recognition given under section 40 with immediate effect for a period not exceeding 90 days, pending implementation of the procedures required by subsection (2), if the continued accreditation or recognition of the authentication service provider is reasonably likely to result in irreparable harm to consumers or any person involved in an electronic transaction in the Republic.
- An authentication service provider whose products or services have been accredited in terms of this Chapter may terminate such accreditation at any time, subject to such conditions as may be agreed to at the time of accreditation or thereafter.
40 Accreditation of foreign products and services
- The Minister may, by notice in the Gazette and subject to such conditions as may be determined by him or her, recognise the accreditation or similar recognition granted to any authentication service provider or its authentication products or services in any foreign jurisdiction.
- An authentication service provider falsely holding out its products or services to have been recognised by the Minister in terms of subsection (1), is guilty of an offence.
41 Accreditation regulations
The Minister may make regulations in respect of-
(a) the rights and obligations of persons relating to the provision of accredited products and services;
(b) the manner in which the Accreditation Authority must administer and supervise compliance with those obligations;
(c) the procedure pertaining to the granting, suspension and revocation of accreditation;
(d) fees to be paid;
(e) information security requirements or guidelines; and
(f) any other relevant matter which it is necessary or expedient to prescribe for the proper implementation of this Chapter.
CONSUMER PROTECTION (ss 42-49)
42 Scope of application
- This Chapter applies only to electronic transactions.
- Section 44 does not apply to an electronic transaction-
(a) for financial services, including but not limited to, investment services, insurance and reinsurance operations, banking services and operations relating to dealings in securities;
(b) by way of an auction;
(c) for the supply of foodstuffs, beverages or other goods intended for everyday consumption supplied to the home, residence or workplace of the consumer;
(d) for services which began with the consumer's consent before the end of the seven-day period referred to in section 44 (1);
(e) where the price for the supply of goods or services is dependent on fluctuations in the financial markets and which cannot be controlled by the supplier;
(f) where the goods-
(i) are made to the consumer's specifications;
(ii) are clearly personalised;
(iii) by reason of their nature cannot be returned; or
(iv) are likely to deteriorate or expire rapidly;
(g) where audio or video recordings or computer software were unsealed by the consumer;
(h) for the sale of newspapers, periodicals, magazines and books;
(i) for the provision of gaming and lottery services; or
(j) for the provision of accommodation, transport, catering or leisure services and where the supplier
undertakes, when the transaction is concluded, to provide these services on a specific date or within a
- This Chapter does not apply to a regulatory authority established in terms of a law if that law prescribes
consumer protection provisions in respect of electronic transactions.
43 Information to be provided
- A supplier offering goods or services for sale, for hire or for exchange by way of an electronic transaction must
make the following information available to consumers on the web site where such goods or services are offered:
(a) Its full name and legal status;
(b) its physical address and telephone number;
(c) its web site address and e-mail address;
(d) membership of any self-regulatory or accreditation bodies to which that supplier belongs or subscribes
and the contact details of that body;
(e) any code of conduct to which that supplier subscribes and how that code of conduct may be accessed
electronically by the consumer;
(f) in the case of a legal person, its registration number, the names of its office bearers and its place of
(g) the physical address where that supplier will receive legal service of documents;
(h) a sufficient description of the main characteristics of the goods or services offered by that supplier to
enable a consumer to make an informed decision on the proposed electronic transaction;
(i) the full price of the goods or services, including transport costs, taxes and any other fees or costs;
(j) the manner of payment;
(k) any terms of agreement, including any guarantees, that will apply to the transaction and how those terms
may be accessed, stored and reproduced electronically by consumers;
(l) the time within which the goods will be dispatched or delivered or within which the services will be
(m) the manner and period within which consumers can access and maintain a full record of the transaction;
(n) the return, exchange and refund policy of that supplier;
(o) any alternative dispute resolution code to which that supplier subscribes and how the wording of that
code may be accessed electronically by the consumer;
and personal information;
(q) where appropriate, the minimum duration of the agreement in the case of agreements for the supply of
products or services to be performed on an ongoing basis or recurrently; and
(r) the rights of consumers in terms of section 44, where applicable.
- The supplier must provide a consumer with an opportunity-
(a) to review the entire electronic transaction;
(b) to correct any mistakes; and
(c) to withdraw from the transaction, before finally placing any order.
- If a supplier fails to comply with the provisions of subsection (1) or (2), the consumer may cancel the
transaction within 14 days of receiving the goods or services under the transaction.
- If a transaction is cancelled in terms of subsection (3)-
(a) the consumer must return the performance of the supplier or, where applicable, cease using the services
(b) the supplier must refund all payments made by the consumer minus the direct cost of returning the goods.
- The supplier must utilise a payment system that is sufficiently secure with reference to accepted technological
standards at the time of the transaction and the type of transaction concerned.
- The supplier is liable for any damage suffered by a consumer due to a failure by the supplier to comply with
44 Cooling-off period
- A consumer is entitled to cancel without reason and without penalty any transaction and any related credit agreement for the supply-
(a) of goods within seven days after the date of the receipt of the goods; or
(b) of services within seven days after the date of the conclusion of the agreement.
- The only charge that may be levied on the consumer is the direct cost of returning the goods.
- If payment for the goods or services has been effected prior to a consumer exercising a right referred to in
subsection (1), the consumer is entitled to a full refund of such payment, which refund must be made within 30 days of the
date of cancellation.
- This section must not be construed as prejudicing the rights of a consumer provided for in any other law.
45 Unsolicited goods, services or communications
- (1) Any person who sends unsolicited commercial communications to consumers, must provide the consumer-
(a) with the option to cancel his or her subscription to the mailing list of that person; and
(b) with the identifying particulars of the source from which that person obtained the consumer's personal information, on request of the consumer.
- No agreement is concluded where a consumer has failed to respond to an unsolicited communication.
- Any person who fails to comply with or contravenes subsection (1) is guilty of an offence and liable, on
conviction, to the penalties prescribed in section 89 (1).
- Any person who sends unsolicited commercial communications to a person who has advised the sender that
such communications are unwelcome, is guilty of an offence and liable, on conviction, to the penalties prescribed in section 89 (1).
- The supplier must execute the order within 30 days after the day on which the supplier received the order, unless the parties have agreed otherwise.
- Where a supplier has failed to execute the order within 30 days or within the agreed period, the consumer may cancel the agreement with seven days' written notice.
- If a supplier is unable to perform in terms of the agreement on the grounds that the goods or services ordered are unavailable, the supplier must immediately notify the consumer of this fact and refund any payments within 30 days after the date of such notification.
47 Applicability of foreign law
The protection provided to consumers in this Chapter, applies irrespective of the legal system applicable to the agreement in question.
Any provision in an agreement which excludes any rights provided for in this Chapter is null and void.
49 Complaints to Consumer Affairs Committee
A consumer may lodge a complaint with the Consumer Affairs Committee in respect of any non-compliance with the provisions of this Chapter by a supplier.
PROTECTION OF PERSONAL INFORMATION (ss 50-51)
50 Scope of protection of personal information
- This Chapter only applies to personal information that has been obtained through electronic transactions.
- A data controller may voluntarily subscribe to the principles outlined in section 51 by recording such fact in
any agreement with a data subject.
- A data controller must subscribe to all the principles outlined in section 51 and not merely to parts thereof.
- The rights and obligations of the parties in respect of the breach of the principles outlined in section 51 are
governed by the terms of any agreement between them.
51 Principles for electronically collecting personal information
- A data controller must have the express written permission of the data subject for the collection, collation,processing or disclosure of any personal information on that data subject unless he or she is permitted or required to do so by law.
- A data controller may not electronically request, collect, collate, process or store personal information on a
data subject which is not necessary for the lawful purpose for which the personal information is required.
- The data controller mu st disclose in writing to the data subject the specific purpose for which any personal
information is being requested, collected, collated, processed or stored.
- The data controller may not use the personal information for any other purpose than the disclosed purpose
without the express written permission of the data subject, unless he or she is permitted or required to do so by law.
- The data controller must, for as long as the personal information is used and for a period of at least one year thereafter, keep a record of the personal information and the specific purpose for which the personal information was collected.
- A data controller may not disclose any of the personal information held by it to a third party, unless required or
permitted by law or specifically authorised to do so in writing by the data subject.
- The data controller must, for as long as the personal information is used and for a period of at least one year thereafter, keep a record of any third party to whom the personal information was disclosed and of the date on which andthe purpose for which it was disclosed.
- The data controller must delete or destroy all personal information which has become obsolete.
- A party controlling personal information may use that personal information to compile profiles for statistical purposes and may freely trade with such profiles and statistical data, as long as the profiles or statistical data cannot be linked to any specific data subject by a third party.
PROTECTION OF CRITICAL DATABASES (ss 52-58)
52 Scope of critical database protection
The provisions of this Chapter only apply to a critical database administrator and critical databases or parts thereof.
53 Identification of critical data and critical databases
The Minister may by notice in the Gazette-
(a) declare certain classes of information which is of importance to the protection of the national security of the Republic or the economic and social well-being of its citizens to be critical data for the purposes ofthis Chapter; and
(b) establish procedures to be followed in the identification of critical databases for the purposes of this Chapter.
54 Registration of critical databases
- The Minister may by notice in the Gazette determine-
(a) requirements for the registration of critical databases with the Department or such other body as the Minister may specify;
(b) procedures to be followed for registration; and
(c) any other matter relating to registration.
- For purposes of this Chapter, registration of a critical database means recording the following information in a register maintained by the Department or by such other body as the Minister may specify:
(a) The full name, address and contact details of the critical database administrator;
(b) the location of the critical database, including the locations of component parts thereof where a critical database is not stored at a single location; and
(c) a general description of the categories or types of information stored in the critical database excluding the contents of such critical database.
55 Management of critical databases
- (1) The Minister may prescribe minimum standards or prohibitions in respect of-
(a) the general management of critical databases;
(b) access to, transfer and control of critical databases;
(c) infrastructural or procedural rules and requirements for securing the integrity and authenticity of critical data;
(d) procedures and technological methods to be used in the storage or archiving of critical databases;
(e) disaster recovery plans in the event of loss of critical databases or parts thereof; and
(f) any other matter required for the adequate protection, management and control of critical databases.
- In respect of critical databases administered by public bodies, all regulations contemplated in subsection (1) must be made in consultation with all members of the Cabinet affected by the provisions of this Chapter: Provided that the Minister must not record information contemplated in section 54 (2) if that information could reasonably compromise-
(a) the security of such databases; or
(b) the physical safety of a person in control of the critical database.
- This Chapter must not be construed so as to prejudice the right of a public body to perform any function authorised in terms of any other law.
56 Restrictions on disclosure of information
- Information contained in the register provided for in section 54 must not be disclosed to any person other than to employees of the Department who are responsible for the keeping of the register.
- Subsection (1) does not apply in respect of information which is disclosed-
(a) to a relevant authority which is investigating a criminal offence or for the purposes of any criminal proceedings;
(b) to government agencies responsible for safety and security in the Republic pursuant to an official request;
(c) to a cyber inspector for purposes of section 57;
(d) pursuant to sections 11 and 30 of the Promotion of Access to Information Act, 2000; or
(e) for the purposes of any civil proceedings which relate to the critical data or parts thereof.
57 Right of inspection
- The Director-General may, from time to time, cause audits to be performed at a critical database administrator
to evaluate compliance with the provisions of this Chapter.
- The audit may be performed either by cyber inspectors or an independent auditor.
58 Non-compliance with Chapter
- Should the audit contemplated in section 57 reveal non-compliance by the critical database administrator with this Chapter, the Director-General must notify the critical database administrator thereof in writing, stating-
(a) the finding of the audit report;
(b) the action required to remedy the non-compliance; and
(c) the period within which the remedial action must be performed.
- A critical database administrator that fails to take the remedial action within the period stated in the notice is guilty of an offence.
DOMAIN NAME AUTHORITY AND ADMINISTRATION (ss 59-69)
Establishment and incorporation of .za domain name authority (ss 59-61)
59 Establishment of Authority
A juristic person to be known as the .za Domain Name Authority is hereby established for the purpose of assuming responsibility for the .za domain name space as from a date determined by the Minister by notice in the Gazette and by notifying all relevant authorities.
60 Incorporation of Authority
- The Minister must, within 12 months of the date of commencement of this Act, take all steps necessary for the
incorporation of the Authority as a company contemplated in section 21 (1) of the Companies Act, 1973 (Act 61 of 1973).
- All citizens and permanent residents of the Republic are eligible for membership of the Authority and must be
registered as members upon application and on payment of a nominal fee to cover the cost of registration of membership
and without having to comply with any formality.
- For the purpose of the incorporation of the Authority a person representing the Minister and the members of Namespace ZA as at the date of application for incorporation must be deemed to be members of the Authority.
61 Authority's memorandum and articles of association
- The memorandum of association and articles of association of the Authority must be consistent with this
Chapter and, except where this Chapter provides to the contrary, als o with the Companies Act, 1973 (Act 61 of 1973).
- Notwithstanding the Companies Act, 1973, an amendment to the memorandum of association or articles of
association affecting any arrangement made by any provision of this Chapter, does not have any legal force and effect
unless the Minister has consented in writing to such an amendment, which consent may not be withheld unreasonably.
- No fee is payable in terms of the Companies Act, 1973, in respect of the reservation of the name of the
company, the registration of the said memorandum and articles and the issue of the certificate to commence business.
- The memorandum and articles of association of the Authority must, amongst others, provide for-
(a) the rules for the convening and conducting of meetings of the Board, including the quorum required for
and the minutes to be kept of those meetings;
(b) the manner in which decisions are to be made;
(c) the establishment of any division of the Authority to perform specialised functions;
(d) the establishment and functioning of committees, including a management committee;
(e) the co-opting by the Board or a committee of any person to assist the Authority or committee in the
consideration of any particular matter;
(f) the preparation by the Board of an annual business plan in terms of which the activities of the Authority
are planned annually;
(g) the banking and investment of funds by the Board;
(h) provisions to regulate the manner in which, and procedures whereby, expertise from any person is
obtained in order to further the objects of the Authority;
(i) the determination through arbitration of any dispute concerning the interpretation of the memorandum
and articles of association of the Authority;
(j) the delegation of powers and assignment of duties to directors, committees and employees: Provided that
the Board may-
(i) not be divested of any power or duty by virtue of the delegation or assignment; and
(ii) vary or set aside any decision made under any delegation or in terms of any assignment;
(k) the procedures and criteria for the establishment and disestablishment of second level domains and for
delegations to such domains;
(l) appeal mechanisms;
(m) the tenure of directors;
(n) the circumstances under and the manner in which a directorship is terminated;
(o) criteria for the disqualification of directors;
(p) the method of determining the allowances to be paid to directors for attending meetings; and
(q) the powers and duties of directors.
Governance and staffing of Authority (ss 62-63)
62 Board of directors of Authority
- The Authority is managed and controlled by a Board of Directors consisting of nine directors, one of whom is
- The process of appointment is the following:
(a) The Minister must appoint an independent selection panel consisting of five persons, who command
public respect for their fair-mindedness, wisdom and understanding of issues concerning the Internet,
culture, language, academia and business, the names of whom must be placed in a notice in the Gazette;
(b) the Minister must invite nominations for members of the Board from the public through newspapers
which have general circulation throughout the Republic, on-line news services, radio and by notice in the Gazette;
(c) nominations must be made to the panel established in terms of paragraph (a);
(d) the panel must recommend to the Minister names of nine persons to be appointed to the Board taking into
account the sectors of stakeholders listed in subsection (3) (b);
(e) if the Minister is not satisfied that the recommendations of the panel comply with subsection (3) the
Minister may request the panel to review its recommendations and make new ones;
(f) the Minister must appoint the members of the Board, and publish the names of those appointed in the
(g) the Minister must appoint the Chairperson of the Board from among the names recommended by the
- (a) The Board, when viewed collectively, must be broadly representative of the demographics of the
country, including having regard to gender and disability.
(b) Sectors of stakeholders contemplated in subsection (2) (d) are-
(i) The existing Domain Name community;
(ii) Academic and legal sectors;
(iii) Science, technology and engineering sectors;
(v) Business and the private sector;
(vi) Culture and language;
(vii) Public sector;
(viii) Internet user community.
- Directors must be persons who are committed to fairness, openness and accountability and to the objects of this
- All directors serve in a part-time and non-executive capacity.
- Any vacancy on the Board must be filled in accordance with subsections (2) and (3).
63 Staff of Authority
- The chief executive officer of the Authority appointed by the Board must perform any work incidental to the
functions of the Authority.
- The chief executive officer must be assisted by staff appointed by the Board.
- The Board must determine the conditions of service, remuneration and service benefits of the chief executive
officer and the staff.
- If the chief executive officer is for any reason unable to perform his or her functions, the Board may designate
a person in the service of the Authority to act as the acting chief executive officer until the chief executive officer is able to
Functions of Authority (ss 64-65)
64 Licensing of registrars and registries
- No person may update a repository or administer a second level domain unless such person is licensed to do so
by the Authority.
- An application to be licensed as a registrar or registry must be made in the prescribed manner and subject to the
- The Authority must apply the prescribed conditions and criteria when evaluating an application referred to in
65 Functions of Authority
- The Authority must-
(a) administer and manage the .za domain name space;
(b) comply with international best practice in the administration of the .za domain name space;
(c) license and regulate registries;
(d) license and regulate registrars for the respective registries; and
(e) publish guidelines on-
(i) the general administration and management of the .za domain name space;
(ii) the requirements and procedures for domain name registration; and
(iii) the maintenance of and public access to a repository,
with due regard to the policy directives which the Minister may make from time to time by notice in the
- The Authority must enhance public awareness on the economic and commercial benefits of domain name
- The Authority-
(a) may conduct such investigations as it may consider necessary;
(b) must conduct research into and keep abreast of developments in the Republic and elsewhere on the
domain name system;
(c) must continually survey and evaluate the extent to which the .za domain name space meets the needs of
the citizens of the Republic; and
(d) may, from time to time, issue information on the registration of domain names in the Republic.
- The Authority may, and must when so requested by the Minister, make recommendations to the Minister in
relation to policy on any matter relating to the .za domain name space.
- The Authority must continually evaluate the effectiveness of this Act and things done in terms thereof towards
the management of the .za domain name space.
- The Authority may-
(a) liaise, consult and co-operate with any person or other authority; and
(b) appoint experts and other consultants on such conditions as the Authority may determine.
- The Authority must respect and uphold the vested rights and interests of parties that were actively involved in
the management and administration of the .za domain name space at the date of its establishment: Provided that-
(a) such parties must be granted a period of six months during which they may continue to operate in respect
of their existing delegated sub-domains; and
(b) after the expiry of the six-month period, such parties must duly apply to be licensed registrars and
registries as provided for in this Part.
Finances and reporting (ss 66-67)
66 Finances of Authority
- All money received by the Authority must be deposited in a banking account in the name of the Authority with a bank established under the Banks Act, 1990 (Act 94 of 1990), or a mutual bank established under the Mutual Banks Act, 1993 (Act 124 of 1993).
- The chief executive officer is the accounting officer of the Authority and must ensure that-
(a) proper record of all the financial transactions, assets and liabilities of the Authority are kept; and
(b) as soon as possible, but not later than three months after the end of a financial year, accounts reflecting the income and expenditure of the Authority and a balance sheet of the assets and liabilities of the Authority as at the end of that financial year are prepared and submitted to the Board and Minister.
- The Authority is funded from-
(a) the capital invested in or lent to the Authority;
(b) money appropriated by Parliament for that purpose;
(c) income derived from the sale or other commercial exploitation of its licenses, approvals, products,
technology, services or expertise in terms of this Act;
(d) loans raised by the Authority;
(e) the proceeds of any sale of assets;
(f) income or interest earned on the Authority's cash balances or on money invested by it; and
(g) money received by way of grant, contribution, donation or inheritance from any source inside or outside
- The funds of the Authority must be utilised to meet the expenditure incurred by the Authority in connection
with its functioning, business and operations in terms of this Act.
- (a) The money may be so utilised only as provided for in a statement of the Authority's estimated income and
expenditure, that has been approved by the Minister.
(b) Money received by way of grant, contribution, donation or inheritance in terms of subsection (3) (g), must be
utilised in accordance with any conditions imposed by the grantor, contributor, donor or testator concerned.
- (a) The Board must in each financial year, at a time determined by the Minister, submit to the Minister for
approval a statement of the Authority's estimated income and expenditure for the next financial year.
(b) The Board may at any time during the course of a financial year, submit a supplementary statement of
estimated income and expenditure of the Authority for that financial year, to the Minister for approval.
(c) The Minister may grant the approval of the statement referred to in paragraph (a), with the agreement of the
Minister of Finance.
(d) The Authority may not incur any expenditure in excess of the total amount approved under paragraph (c).
- The Board may establish a reserve fund for any purpose that is connected with the Authority's functions under
this Act and has been approved by the Minister, and may allocate to the reserve fund the money that may be made available for the purposes in the statement of estimated income and expenditure or supplementary statement contemplated in subsection (6).
- To the extent that the Authority is provided with start-up capital by the State, the Authority may, at the election
of the Minister of Finance, be made subject to the Public Finance Management Act, (Act 1 of 1999), until such time as the Authority, to the satisfaction of the Minister of Finance, becomes self-sustaining through the alternative sources of revenue provided for in subsection (3).
As soon as practicable after the end of every financial year, the Board must submit a report on its activities during
that year to the Minister who must table that report in Parlia ment.
Regulations (s 68)
68 Regulations regarding Authority
The Authority may, with the approval of the Minister, make regulations regarding
(a) the requirements which registries and registrars must meet in order to be licensed, including objective standards relating to operational accuracy, stability, robustness and efficiency;
(b) the circumstances and manner in which registrations may be assigned, registered, renewed, refused, or revoked by the registries with due regard to the express recognition of the right of groups and members of groups within the Republic to identify with, use or communicate cultural, linguistic, geographical, indigenous or any other expressions of heritage including any visual or audible elements or attributes thereof;
(c) pricing policy;
(d) provisions for the restoration of a domain name registration and penalties for late payments;
(e) the terms of the domain name registration agreement which registries and registrars must adopt and use in registering domain names, including issues in respect of privacy, consumer protection and alternative dispute resolution;
(f) processes and procedures to avoid unfair and anti-competitive practices, including bias to, or preferential
treatment of actual or prospective registrants, registries or registrars, protocols or products;
(g) requirements to ensure that each domain name contains an administrative and technical contact;
(h) the creation of new sub-domains;
(i) procedures for ensuring monitoring of compliance with the provisions of this Act and the regulations provided for in this Chapter, including regular .za domain name space technical audits;
(j) such other matters relating to the .za domain name space as it may be necessary to prescribe to achieve the objectives of this Chapter; and
(k) policy to be applied by the Authority.
Alternative dispute resolution (ss 69)
69 Alternative dispute resolution
- The Minister, in consultation with the Minister of Trade and Industry, must make regulations for an alternative
mechanism for the resolution of disputes in respect of the .za domain name space.
- The regulations must be made with due regard to existing international precedent.
- The regulations may prescribe-
(a) procedures for the resolution of certain types of disputes determined in the regulations and which relate to
a domain name regis tration;
(b) the role which the Authority must fulfil in administering the dispute resolution procedure;
(c) the appointment, role and function of dispute resolution adjudicators;
(d) the procedure and rules which must be followed in adjudicating dis putes;
(e) unlawful actions or activities in respect of domain names, distinguishing between criminal and civil liability;
(f) measures to prevent unlawful actions or activities with respect to domain names;
(g) the manner, costs of and time within which a determination must be made;
(h) the implementation of determinations made in terms of the dispute resolution procedure;
(i) the limitation of liability of registrars and registries for implementing a determination; and
(j) the enforcement and publication of determinations.
LIMITATION OF LIABILITY OF SERVICE PROVIDERS (ss 70-79)
In this Chapter, 'service provider' means any person providing information system services.
71 Recognition of representative body
- The Minister may, on application by an industry representative body for service providers by notice in the
Gazette, recognise such body for purposes of section 72.
- The Minister may only recognise a representative body referred to in subsection (1) if the Minister is satisfied
(a) its members are subject to a code of conduct;
(b) membership is subject to adequate criteria;
(c) the code of conduct requires continued adherence to adequate standards of conduct; and
(d) the representative body is capable of monitoring and enforcing its code of conduct adequately.
72 Conditions for eligibility
The limitations on liability established by this Chapter apply to a service provider only if-
(a) the service provider is a member of the representative body referred to in section 71; and
(b) the service provider has adopted and implemented the official code of conduct of that representative body.
73 Mere conduit
- (1) A service provider is not liable for providing access to or for operating facilities for information systems or
transmitting, routing or storage of data messages via an information system under its control, as long as the service
(a) does not initiate the transmission;
(b) does not select the addressee;
(c) performs the functions in an automatic, technical manner without selection of the data; and
(d) does not modify the data contained in the transmission.
- The acts of transmission, routing and of provision of access referred to in subsection (1) include the automatic,
intermediate and transient storage of the information transmitted in so far as this takes place-
(a) for the sole purpose of carrying out the transmission in the information system;
(b) in a manner that makes it ordinarily inaccessible to anyone other than anticipated recipients; and
(c) for a period no longer than is reasonably necessary for the transmission.
- Notwithstanding this section, a competent court may order a service provider to terminate or prevent unlawful
activity in terms of any other law.
- A service provider that transmits data provided by a recipient of the service via an information system under its
control is not liable for the automatic, intermediate and temporary storage of that data, where the purpose of storing such data is to make the onward transmission of the data more efficient to other recipients of the service upon their request, aslong as the service provider-
(a) does not modify the data;
(b) complies with conditions on access to the data;
(c) complies with rules regarding the updating of the data, specified in a manner widely recognised and used
(d) does not interfere with the lawful use of technology, widely recognised and used by industry, to obtain
information on the use of the data; and
(e) removes or disables access to the data it has stored upon receiving a take-down notice referred to in section 77.
- Notwithstanding this section, a competent court may order a service provider to terminate or prevent unlawful activity in terms of any other law.
- A service provider that provides a service that consists of the storage of data provided by a recipient of the
service, is not liable for damages arising from data stored at the request of the recipient of the service, as long as the service provider-
(a) does not have actual knowledge that the data message or an activity relating to the data message is
infringing the rights of a third party; or
(b) is not aware of facts or circumstances from which the infringing activity or the infringing nature of the
data message is apparent; and
(c) upon receipt of a take-down notification referred to in section 77, acts expeditiously to remove or to
disable access to the data.
- The limitations on liability established by this section do not apply to a service provider unless it has designated an agent to receive notifications of infringement and has provided through its services, including on its web sites
in locations accessible to the public, the name, address, phone number and e-mail address of the agent.
- Notwithstanding this section, a competent court may order a service provider to terminate or prevent unlawful
activity in terms of any other law.
- Subsection (1) does not apply when the recipient of the service is acting under the authority or the control of the service provider.
76 Information location tools
A service provider is not liable for damages incurred by a person if the service provider refers or links users to a web page containing an infringing data message or infringing activity, by using information location tools, including a directory, index, reference, pointer, or hyperlink, where the service provider-
(a) does not have actual knowledge that the data message or an activity relating to the data message is
infringing the rights of that person;
(b) is not aware of facts or circumstances from which the infringing activity or the infringing nature of the
data message is apparent;
(c) does not receive a financial benefit directly attributable to the infringing activity; and
(d) removes, or disables access to, the reference or link to the data message or activity within a reasonable time after being informed that the data message or the activity relating to such data message, infringes the rights of a person.
77 Take-down notification
- For the purposes of this Chapter, a notification of unlawful activity must be in writing, must be addressed by
the complainant to the service provider or its designated agent and must include-
(a) the full names and address of the complainant;
(b) the written or electronic signature of the complainant;
(c) identification of the right that has allegedly been infringed;
(d) identification of the material or activity that is claimed to be the subject of unlawful activity;
(e) the remedial action required to be taken by the service provider in respect of the complaint;
(f) telephonic and electronic contact details, if any, of the complainant;
(g) a statement that the complainant is acting in good faith;
(h) a statement by the complainant that the information in the take -down notification is to his or her
knowledge true and correct; and
- Any person who lodges a notification of unlawful activity with a service provider knowing that it materially
misrepresents the facts is liable for damages for wrongful take -down.
- A service provider is not liable for wrongful take -down in response to a notification.
78 No general obligation to monitor
- When providing the services contemplated in this Chapter there is no general obligation on a service provider
(a) monitor the data which it transmits or stores; or
(b) actively seek facts or circumstances indicating an unlawful activity.
- The Minister may, subject to section 14 of the Constitution, prescribe procedures for service providers to-
(a) inform the competent public authorities of alleged illegal activities undertaken or information provided by
recipients of their service; and
(b) to communicate to the competent authorities, at their request, information enabling the identification of
recipients of their service.
This Chapter does not affect-
(a) any obligation founded on an agreement;
(b) the obligation of a service provider acting as such under a licensing or other regulatory regime established
by or under any law;
(c) any obligation imposed by law or by a court to remove, block or deny access to any data message; or
(d) any right to limitation of liability based on the common law or the Constitution.
CYBER INSPECTORS (ss 80-84)
80 Appointment of cyber inspectors
- The Director-General may appoint any employee of the Department as a cyber inspector empowered to perform the functions provided for in this Chapter.
- A cyber inspector must be provided with a certificate of appointment signed by or on behalf of the Director-General in which it is stated that he or she has been appointed as a cyber inspector.
- A certificate provided for in subsection (2) may be in the form of an advanced electronic signature.
- When a cyber inspector performs any function in terms of this Act, he or she must-
(a) be in possession of a certificate of appointment referred to in subsection (2); and
(b) show that certificate to any person who-
(i) is subject to an investigation or an employee of that person; or
(ii) requests to see the certificate.
- Any person who-
(a) hinders or obstructs a cyber inspector in the performance of his or her functions in terms of this Chapter;
(b) falsely holds himself or herself out as a cyber inspector, is guilty of an offence.
81 Powers of cyber inspectors
- A cyber inspector may-
(a) monitor and inspect any web site or activity on an information system in the public domain and report any unlawful activity to the appropriate authority;
(b) in respect of a cryptography service provider-
(i) investigate the activities of a cryptography service provider in relation to its compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act; and
(ii) issue an order in writing to a cryptography service provider to comply with the provisions of this Act;
(c) in respect of an authentication service provider-
(i) investigate the activities of an authentication service provider in relation to its compliance or noncompliance with the provisions of this Act;
(ii) investigate the activities of an authentication service provider falsely holding itself, its products or services out as having been accredited by the Authority or recognised by the Minister as provided for in Chapter VI;
(iii) issue an order in writing to an authentication service provider to comply with the provisions of this Act; and
(d) in respect of a critical database administrator, perform an audit as provided for in section 57.
- Any statutory body, including the South African Police Service, with powers of inspection or search and
seizure in terms of any law may apply for assistance from a cyber inspector to assist it in an investigation: Provided that-
(a) the requesting body must apply to the Department for assistance in the prescribed manner; and
(b) the Department may authorise such assistance on certain conditions.
82 Power to inspect, search and seize
(1) A cyber inspector may, in the performance of his or her functions, at any reasonable time, without prior notice
and on the authority of a warrant issued in terms of section 83 (1) , enter any premises or access an information system that
has a bearing on an investigation and-
(a) search those premises or that information system;
(b) search any person on those premises if there are reasonable grounds for believing that the person has
personal possession of an article, document or record that has a bearing on the investigation;
(c) take extracts from, or make copies of any book, document or record that is on or in the premises or in the
information system and that has a bearing on the investigation;
(d) demand the production of and inspect relevant licences and registration certificates as provided for in any
(e) inspect any facilities on the premises which are linked or associated with the information system and
which have a bearing on the investigation;
(f) have access to and inspect the operation of any computer or equipment forming part of an information
system and any associated apparatus or material which the cyber inspector has reasonable cause to
suspect is or has been used in connection with any offence;
(g) use or cause to be used any information system or part thereof to search any data contained in or available
to such information system;
(h) require the person by whom or on whose behalf the cyber inspector has reasonable cause to suspect the
computer or information system is or has been used, or require any person in control of, or otherwise
involved with the operation of the computer or information system to provide him or her with such
reasonable technical and other assistance as he or she may require for the purposes of this Chapter; or
(i) make such inquiries as may be necessary to ascertain whether the provisions of this Act or any other law
on which an investigation is based, have been complied with.
(2) A person who refuses to co-operate or hinders a person conducting a lawful search and seizure in terms of this
section is guilty of an offence.
(3) The Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act 51 of 1977), applies with the necessary changes to searches and
seizures in terms of this Act.
(4) For purposes of this Act, any reference in the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977, to 'premises' and 'article' includes
an information system as well as data messages.
83 Obtaining warrant
(1) Any magistrate or judge may, upon a request from a cyber inspector but subject to the provisions of section 25
of the Criminal Procedure Act, 1977 (Act 51 of 1977), issue a warrant required by a cyber inspector in terms of this
(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), a magistrate or judge may issue a warrant where -
(a) an offence has been committed within the Republic;
(b) the subject of an investigation is -
(i) a South African citizen or ordinarily resident in the Republic; or
(ii) present in the Republic at the time when the warrant is applied for; or
(c) information pertinent to the investigation is accessible from within the area of jurisdiction of the court.
(3) A warrant to enter, search and seize may be issued at any time and must-
(a) identify the premises or information system that may be entered and searched; and
(b) specify which acts may be performed thereunder by the cyber inspector to whom it is issued.
(4) A warrant to enter and search is valid until-
(a) the warrant has been executed;
(b) the warrant is cancelled by the person who issued it or in that person's absence, by a person with similar
(c) the purpose for issuing it has lapsed; or
(d) the expiry of one month from the date on which it was issued.
(5) A warrant to enter and search premises may be executed only during the day, unless the judge or magistrate
who issued it, authorises that it may be executed at any other time.
84 Preservation of confidentiality
(1) Except for the purpose of this Act or for the prosecution of an offence or pursuant to an order of court, a person
who has, pursuant to any powers conferred under this Chapter, obtained access to any information may not disclose such
information to any other person.
(2) Any person who contravenes subsection (1) is guilty of an offence and liable on conviction to a fine or to
imprisonment for a period not exceeding six months.
CYBER CRIME (ss 85-89)
In this Chapter, unless the context indicates otherwise-
'access' includes the actions of a person who, after taking note of any data, becomes aware of the fact that he or
she is not authorised to access that data and still continues to access that data.
86 Unauthorised access to, interception of or interference with data
(1) Subject to the Interception and Monitoring Prohibition Act, 1992 (Act 127 of 1992), a person who intentionally
accesses or intercepts any data without authority or permission to do so, is guilty of an offence.
(2) A person who intentionally and without authority to do so, interferes with data in a way which causes such data
to be modified, destroyed or otherwise rendered ineffective, is guilty of an offence.
(3) A person who unlawfully produces, sells, offers to sell, procures for use, designs, adapts for use, distributes or
possesses any device, including a computer program or a component, which is designed primarily to overcome security
measures for the protection of data, or performs any of those acts with regard to a password, access code or any other
similar kind of data with the intent to unlawfully utilise such item to contravene this section, is guilty of an offence.
(4) A person who utilises any device or computer program mentioned in subsection (3) in order to unlawfu lly
overcome security measures designed to protect such data or access thereto, is guilty of an offence.
(5) A person who commits any act described in this section with the intent to interfere with access to an
information system so as to constitute a denial, including a partial denial, of service to legitimate users is guilty of an
87 Computer-related extortion, fraud and forgery
(1) A person who performs or threatens to perform any of the acts described in section 86, for the purpose of
obtaining any unlawful proprietary advantage by undertaking to cease or desist from such action, or by undertaking to
restore any damage caused as a result of those actions, is guilty of an offence.
(2) A person who performs any of the acts described in section 86 for the purpose of obtaining any unlawful
advantage by causing fake data to be produced with the intent that it be considered or acted upon as if it were authentic, is
guilty of an offence.
88 Attempt, and aiding and abetting
(1) A person who attempts to commit any of the offences referred to in sections 86 and 87 is guilty of an offence
and is liable on conviction to the penalties set out in section 89 (1) or (2), as the case may be.
(2) Any person who aids and abets someone to commit any of the offences referred to in sections 86 and 87 is
guilty of an offence and is liable on conviction to the penalties set out in section 89 (1) or (2), as the case may be.
(1) A person convicted of an offence referred to in sections 37 (3) , 40 (2) , 58 (2) , 80 (5) , 82 (2) or 86 (1) , (2) or
(3) is liable to a fine or imprisonment for a period not exceeding 12 months.
(2) A person convicted of an offence referred to in section 86 (4) or (5) or section 87 is liable to a fine or
imprisonment for a period not exceeding five years.
GENERAL PROVISIONS (ss 90-95)
90 Jurisdiction of courts
A court in the Republic trying an offence in terms of this Act has jurisdiction where -
(a) the offence was committed in the Republic;
(b) any act of preparation towards the offence or any part of the offence was committed in the Republic, or
where any result of the offence has had an effect in the Republic;
(c) the offence was committed by a South African citizen or a person with permanent residence in the
Republic or by a person carrying on business in the Republic; or
(d) the offence was committed on board any ship or aircraft registered in the Republic or on a voyage or
flight to or from the Republic at the time that the offence was committed.
91 Saving of common law
This Chapter does not affect criminal or civil liability in terms of the common law.
92 Repeal of Act 57 of 1983
The Computer Evidence Act, 1983, is hereby repealed.
93 Limitation of liability
Neither the State, the Minister, nor any employee of the State is liable in respect of any act or omission in good
faith and without gross negligence in performing a function in terms of this Act.
The Minister may make regulations regarding any matter that may or must be prescribed in terms of this Act or
any matter which it is necessary or expedient to prescribe for the proper implementation or administration of this Act.
95 Short title and commencement
This Act is called the Electronic Communications and Transactions Act, 2002, and comes into operation on a date
fixed by the President by proclamation in the Gazette.
(see section 4 (3))
Item Column A Column B
1. Wills Act, 1953 (Act 7 of 1953) 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16,
18, 19 and 20
2. Alienation of Land Act, 1981 (Act 68 of 1981) 12 and 13
3. Bills of Exchange Act, 1964 (Act 34 of 1964) 12 and 13
4. Stamp Duties Act, 1968 (Act 77 of 1968) 11, 12, 14
(see section 4 (4))
1. An agreement for alienation of immovable property as provided for in the Alienation of Land Act,
1981 (Act 68 of 1981).
2. An agreement for the long-term lease of immovable property in excess of 20 years as provided for
in the Alienation of Land Act, 1981 (Act 68 of 1981).
3. The execution, retention and presentation of a will or codicil as defined in the Wills Act, 1953
(Act 7 of 1953).
4. The execution of a bill of exchange as defined in the Bills of Exchange Act, 1964 (Act 34 of
INDECENT OR OBSCENE PHOTOGRAPHIC MATTER AMENDMENT ACT 72 OF 1983
[ASSENTED TO 3 JUNE 1983] [DATE OF COMMENCEMENT: 15 JUNE 1983]
(English text signed by the State President)
To amend the Indecent or Obscene Photographic Matter Act, 1967, so as to extend the meaning of the words
1 Amends section 1 of the Indecent or Obscene Photographic Matter Act 37 of 1967 by inserting the definition of
2 Short title
This Act shall be called the Indecent or Obscene Photographic Matter Amendment Act, 1983.
FILMS AND PUBLICATIONS ACT 65 OF 1996
[ASSENTED TO 30 OCTOBER 1996] [DATE OF COMMENCEMENT: 1 JUNE 1998]
(Unless otherwise indicated)
(Afrikaans text signed by the President)
as amended by
Films and Publications Amendment Act 34 of 1999
Prevention and Combating of Corrupt Activities Act 12 of 2004
Films and Publications Amendment Act 18 of 2004
Regulations under this Act
ADVISORY PANEL REGULATIONS
DISPLAY OF CERTAIN PUBLICATIONS REGULATIONS
FILMS AND PUBLICATIONS REGULATIONS
FILMS AND PUBLICATIONS REGULATIONS (ADULT PREMISES)
FILMS AND PUBLICATIONS REGULATIONS (FEES)
FILMS AND PUBLICATIONS REGULATIONS (GAMES)
GUIDELINES FOR THE CLASSIFICATION OF FILMS AND INTERACTIVE COMPUTER GAMES